I am trying to better understand this statement and the assumptions made:
If $X_1,X_2,\ldots$ are non-negative independently and identically distributed random variables with $P(X_i>0)>0$, then $\displaystyle P\left(\sum_{i=1}^\infty X_i=\infty\right)=1$.
Could someone provide simple examples showing that the statement would not hold if: 1) the $X_i$ were identically distributed but not independent and 2) the $X_i$ were independent but not identically distributed? Thanks!