My question is pretty basic.
Here it goes:
Is it always true that $$\prod_{j=1}^{w}{(2s_j + 1)} \equiv 1 \pmod 4$$ where the $s_j$'s are positive integers, and may be odd or even?
We can perhaps assume that $w \geq 10$.
I am thinking that it might be possible to disprove this, but I cannot think of a counterexample at this moment.
MY ATTEMPT
How about $$w=10$$ $$s_1 = s_2 = s_3 = s_4 = s_5 = s_6 = s_7 = s_8 = s_9 = 2$$ and $$s_{10} = 1$$ for a counterexample?
Each factor on the left hand side may be either $\equiv 1$ or $\equiv 3\bmod 4$. If there are an odd number of the latter (i.e. an odd number of odd $s_j$), the product will be $\equiv 3\bmod 4$.