I was wondering if it is true for $x>m$ where $m$ is a constant, we have:
$\ln(x)+\frac{1}{\ln x} >\ln(x+1)$
If we plot the figure $\ln(x)(\ln(x+1)-\ln(x))$ in google we see:
As you can see the line is decreasing when $x>6$ which highlights the fact that:
$$1>\ln(x)(\ln(x+1)-\ln(x))$$
I want a formal proof for this fact.
Thanks.

You are looking for an $m$ such that if $x > m$ one has $${1 \over \ln x} > \ln(x+1) - \ln(x)$$ By the mean value theorem, $\ln(x + 1) - \ln (x) = 1/y$ for some $y$ between $x$ and $x + 1$. So we have $$\ln(x + 1) - \ln (x) < {1 \over x}$$ Hence it suffices to find an $m$ such that if $x > m$ one has $${1 \over \ln x} > {1 \over x}$$ Equivalently (assuming $m > 1$), one wants $$\ln x < x$$ This holds for all $x > 1$, which can be shown by various elementary means. See this answer for details: How to prove $\ln x<x$?