Is $\limsup A_n=\inf_N\sup_{n\ge N} A_n$ where $A_n\subset X$ and limsup is set-theoretic limit.
I know it holds for real numbers. Just wondering if the same holds for sets.
2026-03-25 06:12:17.1774419137
Is $\limsup A_n=\inf_N\sup_{n\ge N} A_n$ for set?
59 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in PROBABILITY
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