Is it possible to write $$\frac{(n+m)!}{n! m!}$$ as $f(n)g(m)$, where $f(n)$ is some expression in terms of $n$ and $g$ is some expression in terms of $m$?
For some context, I want to determine the domain of convergence of the series $$\sum_{n,m =1}^{\infty} \frac{(n+m)!}{n! m!} x^n y^m.$$
For some integer $k$ you can write
$$m = k-n$$
In order to get
$$\frac{k!}{n!(k-n)!} \equiv \binom{k}{n}$$
In this way sum becomes a double sum
$$\sum_{n = 1}^{+\infty}\sum_{k = n+1}^{+\infty} \binom{k}{n}x^n y^{k-n}$$
Which is straightforward and it does converge to
$$\frac{xy \left(x +y-2 \right)}{(x-1) (y-1) (x+y-1)}$$