I'm struggling to understand the meaning/motivation behind injective objects in (abelian) categories, especially in the context of group cohomology. They seem to be mostly mysterious as one mostly cares about having enough of them. Having enough injectives is great since we can define derived functors and derived functors are useful. But this reason for defining them seems kind of backwards.
I am wondering if there is any "intrinsic" interest / reason in defining and studying injectives objects, which would naturally lead to looking at injective resolutions and defining derived functors.
Imagine that you have an additive left-exact functor $F$ (on an unspecified abelian category, which we assume is nice enough for the following informal reasoning to make some pretense of sense – typically modules) and that you are told by an oracle that $R^1F$ exists.
Past the euphoria, you realize with some dismay that this told you little useful – because of its “definition” (or rather, lack thereof, since we’ll pretend you don’t know injectives yet), the properties are so hopelessly self-referent that you’ll never get to compute even a single instance of $R^1F$.
Then an idea strikes you. “Okay”, you tell yourself, “this ideal, Platonic version of $R^1F$ exists. But I can’t do anything with it. So instead I’ll try to make my own version of this functor.” [which we’ll call $DF$]
What was the purpose of $(R^1F)A$ anyway? It was to quantify the cokernel of $FB \rightarrow FC$ where $0 \rightarrow A \rightarrow B \rightarrow C \rightarrow 0$ is exact: every such cokernel injects into $(R^1F)A$.
“So,” you decide, “the useful part of $(R^1F)A$, which we’ll call $DF(A)$, could be the subobject of $(R^1F)A$ generated by all these cokernels [yes, there’s an issue here. Yes, it’s irrelevant and we’ll pretend it doesn’t exist]. In a fair world, it should be exactly like $(R^1F)A$.”
So, when would $DF(A)$ vanish? “When,” you reason, “every exact sequence as above remains exact after applying $F$. If that’s even possible,” you hastily add, frightened at how bold your assumption was, “because it’s only a sufficient condition, the actual criterion is probably a lot more intricate.”
But how could you check that unrealistic property? “Well,” you muse, “since we’re already in the realm of wild speculation, perhaps… when every exact sequence as above splits? I know I’m grasping at straws, but what else can I suggest?”
As you may have guessed, the objects $A$ such that any exact $0 \rightarrow A \rightarrow B \rightarrow C \rightarrow 0$ splits are the injective objects.