Probability that at least one bin has all balls of the same color

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There are $32$ balls in total, equally split into red, green, blue, and white colors ($8$ balls each). I also have $4$ bins. What is the probability that in at least one of the bins, all the balls are of the same color?

My process: I am trying to use complementary probability, which in this case is $$1 - P(\text{no bin has all balls of same color})$$. I started this off by doing for the first bin, where the number of options is $$\frac{32 * 24 * 31 * 30 * 29 * 28 * 27 * 26)}{8!}$$, but I feel like I am going in the wrong direction. I have thought about PIE as well but am not sure how to do it as it seems quite messy. Any help would be appreciated.

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Let's use PIE.

To begin, the total number of ways to assign balls to bins is $\binom{32}{8} \binom{24}{8} \binom{16}{8}$.

Case 1: At least one bin has all balls the same color. There are $4$ ways to choose a bin, and $4$ ways to choose a color. Following this, there are $\binom{24}{8} \binom{16}{8}$ ways to fill the remaining bins.

Case 2: At least two bins have all balls the same color. There are $\binom{4}{2} = 6$ ways to choose the bins, $4$ ways to choose the color for the first bin, and $3$ ways to choose the color for the second bin. Following this, there are $\binom{16}{8}$ ways to fill the remaining bins.

Case 3: All bins have all balls the same color. For this case, our only choice is in assigning colors to bins. There are $4$ choices for the first bin, $3$ choices for the second, and $2$ choices for the third.

Now let's account for overcounting. Each arrangement in Case 2 was counted twice in Case 1. Therefore, the number of arrangements in Case 2 needs to be subtracted (once) from the total. Each arrangement in Case 3 was counted four times in Case 1, but was discounted $\binom{4}{2} = 6$ times in Case 2. Therefore, the number of arrangements in Case 3 needs to be added three times to the total.

Bringing everything together, we have

$$P = \frac{(4) (4) \binom{24}{8} \binom{16}{8} - (6) (4) (3) \binom{16}{8} + (3) (4) (3) (2)}{\binom{32}{8} \binom{24}{8} \binom{16}{8}}$$

$$= \frac{123731423}{81340761805875} \approx 1.5211 \times 10^{-6}$$

As expected, not very likely at all.