Given an examplary discrete density function $f$:
Value probability
1 15/50
2 10/50
3 7/50
4 13/50
5 5/50
What is the probability that $\sum\limits_{i=1}\limits^n\mathcal{X}_i > \sum\limits_{i=n+1}\limits^{2n}\mathcal{X}_i$ for 2n random independent variables $\mathcal{X}_i$ sampled in order $i=1,2,...,2n$ from that density?
My thought process: Let $\mathcal{X} = \sum\limits_{i=1}\limits^n\mathcal{X}_i$ and $\mathcal{Y}=\sum\limits_{i=n+1}\limits^{2n}\mathcal{X}_i$. These are two new random variables, and their density function $g$ can be computed through convolution of $f$ $n$ times with itself, e.g. for n=3 it would be $g=f*f*f$.
Now let $v_{min}=n*min(values_f)$ and $v_{max}=n*max(values_f)$. The resulting possible values of the new random variables are all $k\in[v_{min},v_{max}]$; since the values of $f$ all have a distance of 1 to the next one all values in this intervall are possible.
Now I think that $P(\mathcal{Y} < \mathcal{X})=\sum\limits_{k=v_{min}}\limits^{v_{max}}P(\mathcal{Y}<\mathcal{X} | \mathcal{Y}=k)$ = $\sum\limits_{k=v_{min}}\limits^{v_{max}}\dfrac{\sum\limits_{y=v_{min}}\limits^{k}\sum\limits_{x=v_{min}}\limits^{y}g(x)g(y)}{\sum\limits_{y=v_{min}}\limits^{k} g(y)}$.
Is that correct? I feel like I made a mistake somewhere, but can't quite catch it. Thank you!

$P(\mathcal X < \mathcal Y) = (1 - P(\mathcal X = \mathcal Y))/2$, where $P(\mathcal X = \mathcal Y)$ is the coefficient of $x^0$ in $$A_n(x) = \left( \sum_j p_j x^j\right)^n \left(\sum_j p_j x^{-j}\right)^n$$