Q: For $p\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $2<p<\infty$, and $a,b>0$, prove the following
$$a^p+b^p<(a^2+b^2)^{p/2}$$
My attempt: I say it's equivalent to proving that $(a^p+b^p)^{1/p}<(a^2+b^2)^{1/2}$. Then I did binomial expansions on both sides of the inequality. Both the expansions have $a+b$ so I canceled them. For the rest of the terms, I thought I'd get geometric series on both sides and show that the series on the left is smaller than that of the right by using related sum formulas. But what I found were not quite geometric. For the left side
$$\frac{1}{p}a^{1-p}b^p+\frac{1-p}{2p^2}a^{1-2p}b^{2p}+\frac{(1-p)(1-2p)}{6p^3}a^{1-3p}b^{3p}+\ldots$$
While for the right
$$\frac{1}{2}a^{-1}b^2-\frac{1}{8}a^{-3}b^4+\frac{1}{16}a^{-5}b^6+\ldots$$
How to proceed to prove the inequality?
Thanks to @Michael Rozenberg for typing out this idea of mine: $$\frac{a^p+b^p}{(a^2+b^2)^{\frac{p}{2}}}=\left(\frac{a^2}{a^2+b^2}\right)^{\frac{p}{2}}+\left(\frac{b^2}{a^2+b^2}\right)^{\frac{p}{2}}\le\frac{a^2}{a^2+b^2}+\frac{b^2}{a^2+b^2}=1,$$
where I have used the fact that $x^q\le x$ when $x\in]0,1]$ and $q\geq1$.