Consider the following variation of topologist's sine curve:
$$f(x) = \frac{1}{x} \cdot \sin \left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$$
I want to show that
$$\lim_{c \to 0} \int_c^1 \frac{1}{x} \cdot \sin \left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \, dx$$ exists, but
$$\lim_{c \to 0} \int_c^1 \left|\frac{1}{x} \cdot \sin \left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\right| \, dx$$
does not exist.
I am not sure how this can be shown. For instance, I am not sure how to establish that the limit above exists without knowing what the limiting value is. My ideas so far are that I will need to take the substitution $u = \frac{1}{x}$. If I do this, I get
$$\lim_{c \to 0} \int_c^1 \frac{1}{x} \cdot \sin \left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \, dx = \lim_{c \to 0} \int_{\frac{1}{c}}^1 \frac{-\sin u}{u} \, du$$
and similarly
$$\lim_{c \to 0} \int_c^1 \left|\frac{1}{x} \cdot \sin \left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\right| \, dx = \lim_{c \to 0} \int_{\frac{1}{c}}^1 \left|\frac{-\sin u}{u} \, du\right|$$
How can I develop this idea further to show what I need to show? Thanks for any help.
Try a substitution: $$ \lim_{c\to 0^+} \int_c^1 \frac{1}{x}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\,dx $$ $$ \stackrel{z=1/x}{=}\lim_{r\to +\infty} \int_r^1 z\sin\left(z\right)(-z^{-2})\,dz $$ $$ =\lim_{r\to +\infty} \int_1^r\frac{\sin(z)}{z}\,dz $$This is improperly integrable, but not absolutely so. If we extend the range of integration to $[0,\infty)$, the result is well-known to equal $\pi/2$; on the other hand, if we take the absolute value of the integrand, the result diverges (a nice exercise: try comparing it to the harmonic series by integrating over intervals of length $\pi$, maybe over $[\pi,\infty)$).