Here is the exact wording of the problem whose solution I would like verified.
Suppose there are functions (of sets) $f_z$ and $g_z$ such that for all sets $A,B$ we have $$P(X \in A,Y \in B\mid Z=z)=f_z(A)g_z(B)$$ Show that $X$ and $Y$ are conditionally independent given $Z=z$. Here is my argument. First we'll show that $$f_z(\Omega_X)g_z(\Omega_Y)=1$$ This is because
$$f_z(\Omega_X)g_z(\Omega_Y)=P(X\in \Omega_X ,Y \in \Omega_Y\mid Z=z)=1$$ Moreover, notice $$P(X \in A\mid Z=z)=P(X \in A,Y \in \Omega_Y|Z=z)=f_z(A)g_z(\Omega_Y)$$ $$P(Y \in B\mid Z=z)=P(X \in \Omega_X,Y \in B\mid Z=z)=f_z(\Omega_X)g_z(B)$$ Hence $$P(X \in A\mid Z=z)P(Y \in B\mid Z=z)=\big[f_z(A)g_z(\Omega_Y)\big]\big[f_z(\Omega_X)g_z(B)\big]=f_z(A)g_z(B)=P(X \in A,Y \in B\mid Z=z)$$
How does this look?
That looks great to me, although there is nothing specific about conditional independence here since the same argument applies if you remove any mention of $Z$. In what context did you see this question?