First a few definitions. A topological space $(X,\tau)$ is said to be:
- a Polish space if it is separable and completely metrizable.
- Analytic, if there exists a surjective continuous map from a (Borel subset of) Polish space to the space $X$.
- Completely Baire (some say "hereditarily Baire"), if each closed subspace is Baire
Now my question is: do we have a counterexample of a non-Polish space that is analytic, second-countable, and completely Baire? Can we say at least that the existence of such counterexample is consistent with ZFC?
Thanks
This paper of Medini and Zdomskyy provides an answer: https://arxiv.org/pdf/1405.7899.pdf
They prove that you can't have a counterexample of a coanalytic separable metric space, and that this extends to projective spaces under projective determinacy. They also prove that it is consistent with ZFC that there is an analytic counterexample.