Suppose $X_n \to X$ in $L^p$. Show that E$|X^p_r| \to E|X^p|$.
The proof suggested the use of Minkowski's inequality in order to get that: $$ [E|X^p|]^{1/p} \leqslant [E(|X_n - X|^p)]^{1/p} + [E(|X^p_n|)]^{1/p} $$ and letting n $\to \infty$, liminf $E|X^p_r| \geq E|X^p|$.
Using again Minkowski:
$$ [E|X^p_n|]^{1/p} \leqslant [E(|X_n - X|^p)]^{1/p} + [E(|X^p|)]^{1/p} $$ ensuring that limsup $E|X^p_r| \leqslant E|X^p|$
I can't understand two things.
Since the Minkowski's inequality state that: $$ ||f+g||_p \leqslant ||f||_p + ||g||_p $$ how in this case has this been used? I thought that, in the first sentence, f = $X^p$ but I can't figure it out where is the "g".
Why in the two sentence do I found the liminf and the limsup respectively?
Take $f=X-X_n$ and $g=X_n$.
If you want to show that $a_n \to a$ and you do not know that the limit exists you show that $\lim \sup a_n \leq a$ and $\lim \inf a_n \geq a$. These two facts imply that $\lim a_n$ exists and equals $a$.