For convenience, $(p,q)$ tensor fields on a differentiable manifold $M$ is defined to be the entire scalar field.
On the other hand, in my textbook, the pullback of the $(p,q)$ tensor $T(x)$ at $x \in M$ by the diffeomorphism map $\sigma:M \rightarrow M$ is defined as follows:
$$(\sigma^*T)(x):=\sigma_x^*T(\sigma(x))\qquad\qquad(1) $$
This definition is correct in case that $p \geq 1 $ or $q \geq 1$ but if $p$ and $q$ are both $0$, then I think the pullback needs to be defined separately. Namely, for a scalar field $f$
$$(\sigma^*f)(x):= (f \circ \sigma)(x)\qquad\qquad(2)$$
Question : Is definition (2) derived from definition (1)?
You can use the same definition:
$$(\sigma^\ast f)(x)=\sigma_x^\ast(f(\sigma(x)).$$
In fact $f(\sigma(x))$ is a $(0,0)$-tensor (i.e. a real number) and the pullback of a $(0,0)$-tensor is simply the $(0,0)$-tensor itself (by definition).
(Or you can simply define that particular case separately as you did. Math is full of this kind of situations).