Suppose $X,Y \sim \text{Uniform} \left(0,1 \right)$ are independent. Then I need to find the PDF for $W=X/Y$.
By the CDF technique this is seen to be :
$$F_W( w)=\int_{0}^1 \int_{0}^{wy} \mathrm{dxdy}=w/2$$
And therefore
$f_W (w)= 1/2 $, a uniform distribution on $(0,2)$
My question is, assuming that I have not made a mistake anywhere, what is the intuition behind this result? I would think that since $Y$ can be close to zero the quotient would be unbounded. Instead it seems that it can only take values up to $2$.
Thank you.

What you want is \begin{align} F_W(w)&=\Pr[W\leq w]\\ &=\Pr[X/Y\leq w]\\ &=\Pr[X\leq wY]&\text{(because $Y\geq0$)}\\ &=\Pr[(X,Y)\in\{(x,y)\in(0,1)\times(0,1):x\leq wy\}]. \end{align} Let us denote $A(w)=\{(x,y)\in(0,1)\times(0,1):x\leq wy\}.$ Then, since $X$ and $Y$ are independent, we see that \begin{align*} F_W(w)=\int_{A(w)}~d(x,y). \end{align*}
As hinted in Michael's answer, the way we parametrize $A(w)$ will depend on $w$ itself:
1. If $w\geq 1$, then $x$ can take any value in $(0,1)$, and for any fixed $x$, $y$ has to be such that $x/w\leq y\leq1$, thus \begin{align*} F_W(w)=\int_0^1\int_{x/w}^{1}~dydx=\int_0^1(1-x/w)~dx=1-1/(2w). \end{align*} This makes sense from a geometrical point of view, because in this case, $A(w)$ is the square $(0,1)\times(0,1)$ to which you remove the triangle $T$ with corners $(0,0)$, $(1,0)$, and $(1,1/w)$; and $T$ has an area of $1/2\times 1\times 1/w$.
2. If $0<w\leq 1$, then $y$ can take any value from $0$ to $1$, but $x$ is restricted to $0\leq x\leq wy$ \begin{align*} F_W(w)=\int_0^1\int_{0}^{wy}~dxdy=w/2. \end{align*}