Can somebody check to see if this is good enough just to show? It's very simple but the question doesn't say prove or anything like that.
So the binomial theorem states that $(x+y)^n=\displaystyle\sum_{r=0}^{n} {n \choose r}x^{n-r}y^r$
Let $x=1, y=1$.
Then $2^n=\displaystyle\sum_{r=0}^{n} {n \choose r}*1^{n-r}1^r$, which reduces to $2^n=\displaystyle\sum_{r=0}^{n} {n \choose r}$. Tada.
Good enough?
This is a perfectly valid proof, you're done.