If $A\subset B$ then $P(B|A) = 1$.
I don't quite understand this. Let's say $A = (4,3)$ is the result of a roll of two dice. $A\subset B$ where $B$ is the set of all ordered pairs of dice rolls. But the fact that $A$ happens doesn't imply that every dice roll in $B$ happens.
Can someone explain why $B$ in this scenario is guaranteed to happen?
Just think about this Venn diagram:
If $A$ happens, then it is certain that a $B$ happens... but it doesn't matter that not every $B$ happens.