In a statistics book I learned that if there are $n$ random variables $X_{t(0)},\dots,X_{t(n-1)}$ (with $t(i)\in\mathbf{R}$) which are independently distributed with distribution $\mathcal{N}(at(i)+b,1)$ (I believe the variance can also vary), then the variable $Y$ constructed by performing linear regression interpolation at time $s$ on the $X_{t(i)}$ has mean $as+b$.
They didn't give a proof, any reference where I can find one? And what if the noise is not normally distributed, would this approach still work?
For simplicity I will consider the case where $b = 0$, though you can expand to include this.
Then given $(t_i)_{i=1}^n$ we have the assumption $x_i = x_{t(i)}$
$$ x_i = \mathcal{N}(a t_i, 1) = a t_i + \xi_i, \qquad \xi_i \sim \mathcal N(0,1).$$
For a regression model without intercept (i.e. $b = 0$), the regression line is determined by the approximation $\hat a$ which is given by the formula
$$ \hat a = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n x_i t_i}{\sum_{i=1}^nt_i^2}.$$
So we would like to show that this is unbiased, i.e. that $\mathbf E[\hat a] = a$. To see this we plug in the formula for $x_i$ given above
$$ \begin{aligned} \mathbf E[\hat a] & = \frac{1}{\sum_{i=1}^n t_i^2} \sum_{i=1}^n t_i \mathbf E[x_i] \\ & = \frac{1}{\sum_{i=1}^n t_i^2} \sum_{i=1}^n t_i(at_i + \mathbf E[\xi_i] ) \\ & = \frac{1}{\sum_{i=1}^n t_i^2} \sum_{i=1}^n a t_i^2 \\ & = a \end{aligned} $$ which is as required.
Note that in the above we did not require that the errors are normally distributed: in fact so long as the model can be formalised to have errors with mean $0$ then the linear regression above will be unbiased.
What does change if either
is whether the linear regression line remains the best linear unbiased estimate: i.e. the one with lowest variance. This is generally not the case.
As an example (which I do not prove), if we have
$$ x_i = a t_i + \sqrt{t_i} \xi_i, \qquad \xi_i \sim \mathcal N(0,1),$$
then as before the linear regression line remains unbiased, however the alternate estimate
$$ \tilde a = \frac{\sum_i{x_i}}{\sum_i{t_i}}$$
is the best linear unbiased estimate (BLUE): and in particular
$$\text{Var}(\tilde a) \leq \text{Var}(\hat a).$$
Notes