Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space. Let $J$ be an indexing set. Consider a set of the form $S = \{x_j \in X\ |\ j \in J \}$ with the property that $d(x_j,x_k) = 1\ $ for all $j \neq k,\ j,k \in J.$ Which of the following staements are true?
a. If such a set exists in $X,$ then there exist open sets $\{U_j \}_{j \in J}$ in $X$ such that $U_j \cap U_k = \emptyset\ $ for all $j \neq k,\ j,k \in J.$
b. There exists such a set $S$ in $\mathcal C [0,1]$ with $J$ being uncountable.
c. If such a set exists in $X,$ and if $X$ is compact, then $J$ must be finite.
Clearly (a) is true. Just taking $0 \lt \varepsilon \leq \frac 1 2$ we can see that the indexed collection of open sets $\left \{B(x_j, \varepsilon) \right \}_{j \in J}$ has the required property mentioned in option (a).
How do I proceed to prove or disprove (b) and (c)? Any help in this regard will be highly appreciated.
Thanks in advance for sparing your valuable time for reading.
b. Assuming that your distance here is $d(f,g)=\sup|f-g|$, then there is no such set. That so because $\mathcal C[0,1]$ is separable; for instance, the set $Q$ of all polynomial functions from $[0,1]$ in $\Bbb R$ with rational coefficients is dense in $\mathcal C[0,1]$. If $J$ existed, for each $j\in J$ there would be an element of $Q$ in $B_{1/2}(j)$. THat's impossible, since those balls don't intersect and there are uncountably many balls.
c. True. If $J$ was infinite, it would have a countable subset. So, we would have a seuence $(x_n)_{n\in\Bbb N}$ of elements of $X$ such that the distance between any two distinct terms would be equal to $1$. Such a sequence has no Cauchy subsequence and therefore no convergent subsequence.