Why are these two sums with factorials equal?

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An exercise from Grimmett & Stirzaker 3.1 question 2: For a random variable $X$ with a mass function on positive integers $$f(x)=\frac{1}{e^2-1}\frac{2^x}{x!},$$ what is the probability that $X$ is even?

We want $\mathbb{P}(\text{$X$ even})=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\mathbb{P}(X=2k)$. In the answer there is one equal sign I can't wrap my head around: $$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{2^{2k}}{(2k)!}=\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}\frac{2^{i}+(-2)^{i}}{2(i)!}-1$$

If anyone can explain this to me, help is much appreciated

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Note that: $$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{2^{2k}}{(2k)!}=\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}\frac{2^i}{i!}χ(i)$$ where $χ(2i)=1$ and $χ(2i+1)=0$, for all $i\geq1$

Now we can write $χ$ in a closed form as follows:

$$χ(i)=\frac12 \left(1+(-1)^i\right)$$

Substituting this in the original expression, we get:

$$\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}\frac{2^i}{i!}χ(i)=\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}\frac{2^i\left(1+(-1)^i\right)}{2\cdot i!}=\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}\frac{2^i+(-2)^i}{2\cdot i!}$$

To get the final wanted equality, notice that for $i=0$ the summand gives $1$, and so we can add and subtract $1$ in order to make the sum start from $i=0$, giving us finally:

$$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{2^{2k}}{(2k)!}=\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}\frac{2^i+(-2)^i}{2\cdot i!}-1$$