I am taking MIT 6.003 course from OCW and came upon the following problem from lecture 1:
For the above image $f(x, y)$, does the below image represent the transformation $f(-x-250, y)$?
The correct answer is no but my answer was yes and the reasoning was as follows:
First, we apply the image transformation using $f(-x, y)$ which will result in the original image being flipped about the vertical axis passing through x=0.
Next, we apply the image transformation using $f(x-250, y)$ which will result in the flipped image to translate to the right.
In total, intuitively speaking, applying $f(-x, y)$ followed by $f(x-250, y)$ should result in the 2nd image shown. Can anyone tell me what is the flaw in my logic? I can't figure out why this reasoning shouldn't work.


The photo should be toward $-250$ and not $250$ if this transformation is applied, it will be helpful to break this down into smaller transformations first simply consider $f(x+250,y)$ this is obviously towards $-250$ now when when we do $f(-(x+250),y)$ we get a flip and the image is still towards $-250$; Note that $f(-(x+250),y)=f(-x-250,y)$.