This article at Wolfram Mathworld has the following theorem on conservative vector fields:
Theorem. The following conditions are equivalent for a conservative vector field $ \mathbf{F} $ defined on an open subset $ U $ of $ \mathbb{R}^{n} $:
For any oriented, simple and closed curve $ C $ whose image lies in $ U $, the contour integral of $ \mathbf{F} $ along $ C $ equals $ 0 $, i.e., $ \displaystyle \oint_{C} \mathbf{F} \cdot \mathrm{d}{\mathbf{s}} = 0 $.
For any two oriented and simple curves $ C_{1} $ and $ C_{2} $ with the same endpoints whose images lie in $ U $, we have $ \displaystyle \int_{C_{1}} \mathbf{F} \cdot \mathrm{d}{\mathbf{s}} = \int_{C_{2}} \mathbf{F} \cdot \mathrm{d}{\mathbf{s}} $.
There exists a differentiable function $ f: U \to \mathbb{R} $, called the scalar potential function of $ \mathbf{F} $, such that $ \mathbf{F} = \nabla f $.
However, I have read in other places that the curves $ C $, $ C_{1} $ and $ C_{2} $ must be piecewise smooth. It seems like a necessary restriction on otherwise arbitrary curves.
Hence, my question is:
Question. Is the theorem valid for non-piecewise-smooth curves? What about non-piecewise-differentiable curves? I think that the line integral might not be defined then.
The general contour integral is defined as follows.
If $ F $ is continuous and $ C $ is rectifiable, then $ \displaystyle \oint_{C} F $ exists. The concept of smoothness is not mentioned at all.
Smoothness ― more generally, differentiability ― only comes into the picture when $ X $ is a differentiable manifold, e.g. when $ X $ is a Euclidean space or a Riemannian manifold (actually, every differentiable manifold possesses a Riemannian metric, but there is no canonical one).