For context; In quantum mechanics with continuous eigenvalues lets suppose we have a probabiltity density like this:
$$\left\lvert a(p) \right\rvert^2=\frac{2a \lvert A \rvert^2\sin^2(ap/\hbar)}{(ap/\hbar)^2}\tag{1}$$ and you wish to show that the relative probability of measuring the particle with momentum $p=\dfrac{\pi \hbar}{2a}$ and with $p=0$ is $\dfrac{4}{\pi^2}$.
The solution simply states that
the relative probability for $p=\dfrac{\pi \hbar}{2a}$ to $p=0$ is $$\frac{1}{(\pi/2)^2}:\frac{\sin(0)}{0}$$
Is this answer really mathematically correct? I wasn't aware that you could invoke the $\dfrac{\sin x}{x}\to 1$ without having limit notation: $\lim \limits_{x \to 0} \dfrac{\sin x}{x}=1$. It seems to me the author has simply evaluated $(1)$ at $p=0$. I thought that this was wrong and we can only say that the fraction tends to $1$.
The solution uses somewhat sloppy notation; what they're actually using is $$ \lvert a(p)\rvert^2=2a \lvert A \rvert^2(f(ap/\hbar))^2 $$ where $$ f(x)=\begin{cases} \dfrac{\sin x}{x} & x\ne 0 \\[6px] 1 & x=0 \end{cases} $$ In other words, they're using the unique extension of $\frac{\sin x}{x}$ by continuity at $0$.