For two vectors $A,B\in R^n$, the inner product of them is $$ A\cdot B = |A||B|\cos\theta $$ where $\theta$ is the angle of $A,B$.
Its geometric meaning is the projection of $A$ multiply by $B$. In my view, it can be treated as a invariant of parallelogram generated by $A,B$, since the project of $A$ multiply by $B$ is equal to the project of $B$ multiply by $A$. Just like the area is the invariant of parallelogram, since it is base times height no matter which side is choosed as base.
As we know , there is n-dimensional volume, when $n=2$, it is area. The n-dimensional volume also can be treated as invariant of parallel polyhedra. But seemly, there is not "n-dimensional" inner product, which also be invariant of parallel polyhedra from its geometric meaning, and be inner product when $n=2$. I want such an inner product. From the geometry, I try some, liking $$ I(A,B,C) = |A||B||C|\cos AB\cos BC $$ where $AB$ is the angle of $A,B$. But obviously, $$ I(A,B,C) \ne I(B,A,C). $$ So, I ask here, whether there is generalization of inner product which can act on three vectors? (I don't care about the inner of function.)
In fact, I feel the inner product is very strange. Although I know its practical meaning, I feel I never understand it. I feel it can be treated as dual of volume in some sense (just feel).
Maybe, this is a stupid problem. Just like asking how divide three numbers to make it liking multiply three numbers. But I am not sure, so ask here. Thanks for any help.
(2021/10/22) For making the problem more precise, I add some my think. In fact, it should be a multilinear map $$ I: R^n\times R^n\times R^n \rightarrow R $$ satisfy : $\forall X,Y,Z\in R^n$
(1) $ I(X,Y,Z) = I(X,Z,Y)= I(Y,X,Z)= I(Y, Z,X) = I(Z,X,Y)= I(Z,Y,X) $
(2) $I(X,X,X)=0 \iff X=\theta$.
(3) $I$ is multilinear.
(4) $X\bot Y, Y\bot Z, Z\bot X$, $I(X,Y,Z)=0$.
(5) It doesn't depend on the choice of basis.
Obviously, the first three is the generalization of inner product. The (5) is to avoid some misunderstand. About (4), I am not sure it should be instead by $X\bot Y \Rightarrow I(X,Y,Z)=0$. I feel this is too strong. So I use (4).
I try to deal it from the tensor. Assuming $e_i$ is basis of $R^n$ and $\omega^i$ is the dual basis of $e_i$, then, $$ I=I_{ijk}\omega^i\otimes \omega^j\otimes \omega^k $$ Therefore, the problem is transfered to the existence of $I_{ijk}$ satisfy (1) (2) (4). But I fail to know whether it is existence. In fact, uniqueness is also unknown.
(2021/10/23) According to Jyrki's hint, I delete $I(X,X,X)\ge 0$.
The requirement that $I(X,X,X)$ never vanishes non-trivially is impossible to achieve if we assume multilinearity and full symmetry $(1)$. Assuming $n\ge2$.
Let $X$ and $Y$ be two linearly independent vectors. Fix them for now. Let $u$ and $v$ range over the reals. Then $$ f(u,v):=I(uX+vY,uX+vY,uX+vY)= u^3I(X,X,X)+3u^2vI(X,X,Y)+3uv^2 I(X,Y,Y)+v^3I(Y,Y,Y). $$ If $(2)$ holds, the coefficients of $u^3$ and $v^3$ above are non-zero. It follows that $f(u,v)$ takes both positive and negative values at some points $P=(u_+,v_+)$ and $N=(u_-,v_-)$. But $f(u,v)$ is a polynomial, so it is continuous. Therefore it takes the value zero along any path (on the $uv$-plane) connecting the points $P$ and $N$. Therefore $f(u,v)$ vanishes also at points other than $u=v=0$.
Come to think of it, the above argument does not need symmetry (item $(1)$) at all. Multilinearity and $(2)$ are incompatible requirements.