A urn contains 10 white marbles and 20 blue marbles. You roll a die and pick the amount of marbles without replacement out depending on the number you roll on the die. Find the probability you roll a 4 given you pick all white marbles.
For this question, I answered: P(4|white) = p(white|4)/p(white). p(white|4) = $\frac 1 6 \sum_{i=1}^4 \frac{ 10-i-1}{30-i-1} $
This is where I really had no idea what I was doing:
p(white) = $\frac 1 6 \sum_{k=0}^6 \sum_{i=0}^k \frac{ 10-i-1}{30-i-1}$
I never did multiple sums before but I ran out of room on the test but the concept I was trying to follow was that p(white) could be the same as p(white|X), X=1,2,3,4,5,6.
Wow, I did put 0 to 6 but maybe it should have been 1 to 6?
Let $W$ denote the event that all picked marbles are white and let $D$ denote the rolled number.
Then $P(W)=\sum_{i=1}^6P(W\mid D=i)P(D=i)=\frac16\sum_{i=1}^6P(W\mid D=i)$.
Here e.g. $P(W\mid D=3)=\frac{10}{20}\frac{9}{19}\frac8{18}$ (do you see why?).
Further we have the equation:$$P(D=4\mid W)P(W)=P(W\mid D=4)P(D=4)=\frac16P(W\mid D=4)$$
so you are fully equipped now to calculate $P(D=4\mid W)$.