Why does $(p \oplus q) \land (p \oplus r)$ imply $p \oplus (q \land r)$ but not other way around

Question

I want to know a counterexample to show that the statement above is not true the other way around

So a counterexample for the statement

$p \oplus (q \land r) \implies (p \oplus q) \land (p \oplus r)$

To show is is not true.

Answer 1

been a while since I did logic, but

p = true, q = true, r = false

LLHS: T xor (T and F) = T xor F = T
RHS: (T xor T) and (T xor F )=F and T = F