I have seen that sometimes the Navier-Stokes equations are written with the term $(\mathbf{v}\cdot\nabla)\mathbf{v}$ expressed as $\mathbf{v} \cdot \nabla \mathbf{v}$. However, is it true in general the following equality for any vector field $\mathbf{v}$?
$$(\mathbf{v}\cdot\nabla)\mathbf{v} \stackrel{?}{=} \mathbf{v} \cdot (\nabla \mathbf{v})$$
A couple of examples: in Batchelor's An Introduction to Fluid Dynamics, equation (2.1.2) defines the mass derivative of the velocity field (which is the LHS of the NS equation) as
$$\frac{\partial \mathbf{u}}{\partial t}+\mathbf{u} \cdot \nabla \mathbf{u}$$
Whereas, in Landau-Lifschitz Fluid Mechanics, 2nd edition, the Navier-Stokes equation is written in equation (15.7) as
$$\frac{\partial \mathbf{v}}{\partial t}+(\mathbf{v} \cdot \nabla) \mathbf{v}=-\frac{1}{\rho}\nabla p+\frac{\eta}{\rho} \Delta \mathbf{v}$$
On the other hand, in Wikipedia, it appears written both ways in the same article of the Navier-Stokes equations.
The equality is true because both sides in index notation are $$ v^\mu\nabla_\mu v^\nu\,. $$ On the level of components this "multiplication" is associative. Then we sum over the repeated index $\mu$. What this describes is the directional derivative of the vector field $v$ into the direction of $v$.